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A Common Sense (and Catch-22) Definition of "Torture"
In the 8/1/2002 memo to then Counsel to the President Alberto Gonzales signed by Jay Bybee,
Bybee starts his discussion of "severe pain" (which is part of the definition of "torture" in federal law, 18 U.S.C. 2340), with a brief discussion of the "ordinary or natural meaning" of "severe pain" with reference to several dictionary definitions of "severe." The discussion concludes with the statement that "the adjective 'severe' conveys that the pain or suffering must be of such a high level of intensity that the pain is difficult for the subject to endure."
If the memorandum had continued with a discussion of what is meant by "difficult for the subject to endure," it might have been a good memorandum. But instead the memorandum wandered off into a kind of legal sophistry. Let's not wander off now, but instead look at what kind of pain might be "difficult for the subject to endure."
Pain that is difficult to endure would be, in extreme cases, pain that is unendurable or unbearable. How could we identify what pain is unendurable or unbearable? That seems to be fairly obvious. If the pain is so severe that it is unendurable or unbearable, then the subject will do anything, anything, to end the pain. If someone is subjected to "severe pain," then they will say anything and agree to anything in order to stop the pain, because "severe pain" is unendurable.
So now we have a practical, objective, and functional definition of "severe pain" (and, by extension, "torture"). If the pain is so great that the subject will do anything to stop it, then the pain is "severe" and the infliction of the pain is "torture."
Assuming that this definition is correct, what are the practical consequences?
The practical consequence is that, if someone doesn't want to tell you something, and you inflict enough pain that they tell you want you want to know even though they didn't want to tell you, then you have almost certainly inflicted pain that is severe and unbearable.
If that proposition is true, then the interrogator/torturer is faced with a Catch-22. If you inflict pain that is unbearable, so that the subject tells you what you what to know, then you have tortured. But if you inflict pain that is bearable, and the subject can choose whether or not to tell you what you want to know, then you haven't tortured but you also haven't accomplished anything because the subject of the pain is still free to withhold information.
In other words: Heads, you torture; but Tails, you get no information.
Which is fine as far as I am concerned, because it eliminates any incentive to torture. If the interrogator knows in advance that any pain that is coercive is torture (and a crime), while pain that is not coercive is not a crime, but also useless, then there is no incentive to apply any pain at all.
Former Vice-President Cheney has said that waterboarding and other "enhanced interrogation" techniques are "effective." If "effective" means that the subject does what you want, then torture is "effective" because severe, unbearable, pain (i.e., "torture") will coerce someone into saying whatever you want. In that sense, torture is "effective." (Whether severe pain is "effective" in producing reliable information is a completely different question that is not necessarily related to the question of whether severe pain is "effective" in producing desired information.)
Which means that Cheney has totally missed the point. Yes, torture is "effective" because it allows the torturer to coerce the victim into saying what the torturer wants. And it is the very effectiveness of the pain that makes it torture. The fact that Cheney believes that waterboarding is "effective" is not evidence that waterboarding is justified, but evidence that waterboarding is torture.
If the memorandum had continued with a discussion of what is meant by "difficult for the subject to endure," it might have been a good memorandum. But instead the memorandum wandered off into a kind of legal sophistry. Let's not wander off now, but instead look at what kind of pain might be "difficult for the subject to endure."
Pain that is difficult to endure would be, in extreme cases, pain that is unendurable or unbearable. How could we identify what pain is unendurable or unbearable? That seems to be fairly obvious. If the pain is so severe that it is unendurable or unbearable, then the subject will do anything, anything, to end the pain. If someone is subjected to "severe pain," then they will say anything and agree to anything in order to stop the pain, because "severe pain" is unendurable.
So now we have a practical, objective, and functional definition of "severe pain" (and, by extension, "torture"). If the pain is so great that the subject will do anything to stop it, then the pain is "severe" and the infliction of the pain is "torture."
Assuming that this definition is correct, what are the practical consequences?
The practical consequence is that, if someone doesn't want to tell you something, and you inflict enough pain that they tell you want you want to know even though they didn't want to tell you, then you have almost certainly inflicted pain that is severe and unbearable.
If that proposition is true, then the interrogator/torturer is faced with a Catch-22. If you inflict pain that is unbearable, so that the subject tells you what you what to know, then you have tortured. But if you inflict pain that is bearable, and the subject can choose whether or not to tell you what you want to know, then you haven't tortured but you also haven't accomplished anything because the subject of the pain is still free to withhold information.
In other words: Heads, you torture; but Tails, you get no information.
Which is fine as far as I am concerned, because it eliminates any incentive to torture. If the interrogator knows in advance that any pain that is coercive is torture (and a crime), while pain that is not coercive is not a crime, but also useless, then there is no incentive to apply any pain at all.
Former Vice-President Cheney has said that waterboarding and other "enhanced interrogation" techniques are "effective." If "effective" means that the subject does what you want, then torture is "effective" because severe, unbearable, pain (i.e., "torture") will coerce someone into saying whatever you want. In that sense, torture is "effective." (Whether severe pain is "effective" in producing reliable information is a completely different question that is not necessarily related to the question of whether severe pain is "effective" in producing desired information.)
Which means that Cheney has totally missed the point. Yes, torture is "effective" because it allows the torturer to coerce the victim into saying what the torturer wants. And it is the very effectiveness of the pain that makes it torture. The fact that Cheney believes that waterboarding is "effective" is not evidence that waterboarding is justified, but evidence that waterboarding is torture.
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Of course, softening someone up is not "getting them to say what you want" and Cheney doesn't admit torture, he says that we got useful info from non-torture.
What he says may be true, false, or undecidable in fact, regardless of cute fictions written about it.
May 15, 2009 5:39 AM | Reply | Permalink
Waterboarding has been classified by US and international law as TORTURE since at latest 1949. The reason is because US troops/POWs were subjected to waterboarding by the Japanese and Nazis during WW II.
So there's no need to resort to "fictions" as excuse for Cheney: it is clear that waterboarding is torture -- even those in the SERE program who VOLUNTARILY underwent waterboarding testified to Congress that there is NO QUESTION about it: IT IS TORTURE.
Those who defend torture are defending torturers. Tortuerers include Hotlier, Stalin, Mao, Saddam Hussein, G. W. Bush, and Cheney.
Feel good claiming to be a patriot while defending such as Hitler and Saddam Hussein?
May 15, 2009 1:46 PM | Reply | Permalink
Where, in which laws, is waterboarding explicitly "classified"? You're making a number of fallacies or other errors, and pointlessly as far as I can tell at a glance.
That instances of waterboarding have been ruled to be torture does not entail that all waterboarding is torture.
May 15, 2009 4:23 PM | Reply | Permalink
But the memorandum does contiue!
It describes pain that is difficult to endure as equivalent to pain in injury, such as organ failure, impairement of bodily functions or death.
The memo makes it very clear that anything that doesn't rise to that level of extreme intensity is not likely to be found torture by a court.
That's why what happened was borderline torture. The techniques were designed to go as far as possible but just a hair short of a legal definition of torture.
So no, there is no Catch-22 here at all. Unless you wander off in philosophical nonsense after having read the first paragraph.
May 15, 2009 7:57 AM | Reply | Permalink
The international body having offical authority to investigate questions of torture is the International Red Cross. They have been at it long enough to know what is and isn't torture: and they said what was done by the Bushit criminal enterprise to detainees was unquestionably TORTURE.
THAT is the definition that applies, NOT that concocted by criminal thugs and retards out to advance a political agenda, and enhance private profits by means of war profiteering.
May 15, 2009 1:48 PM | Reply | Permalink