(note: I realize I had worded my original title poorly, so I've changed it up a bit.)

I saw the clip the other day that shows Rush Limbaugh being called a Nazi by one of his listeners. I'm sure most of you have seen it. Keith Olbermann just replayed it on Countdown on MSNBC tonight and one particular comment by Limbaugh really stands out.

The listener identifies himself as a Republican who served in the Marines and Army, and who voted for McCain. The topic turned to torture, and how the Untied States is supposed to be above torturing our prisoners. Rush's key response was "I don't know of a single person who died from being tortured."

I've heard this rationale before from the Bush Administration, that being that if the prisoner, the individual human being, doesn't die, then its not torture. I'm sure that others have probably discussed this already, but I haven't seen it myself.

Do the Republicans really not know the difference between torturing someone, and murdering them? As far as I'm aware, the goal of torture is not to kill, but to cause extreme pain, suffering, and/or mutilation. The tortured person may die from their treatment, or may be executed following the torture, but since when has torture not been torture if the person doesn't die from it?

I find this to be a very troubling, ignorant, and ridiculous standpoint for the Republicans to continue to make. Why is no one calling them on this?