The Tragedy of American Independence
File this one under "why do liberals hate America?" but this time of year I'm always intrigued by the view that American independence was more-or-less a giant mistake. Not just a mistake on the part of the Founders, but also on the part of their British opposite numbers. The point is simply that, unlike a lot of superficially similar conflicts, there wasn't some kind of deep national antagonism between Americans and British nor was there an especially gaping ideological void. The issues at stake were eminently compromisable, had wiser leadership been available, and the examples of Canada, Australia, New Zealand, and (to some extent) South Africa indicate that having lost the USA the British government was able to come up with a perfectly workable alternative system of imperial management. And wouldn't it have been better if the USA-British relationship had evolved along the Canadian model?
Consider that Canada and the other dominions entered the world wars at the same time as Britain rather than on the USA's leisurely pace. If we'd gotten into World War II in 1939 rather than 1941 the war, presumably, have been considerably shorter and many lives could have been saved. Even better would be if American entry into World War I in 1914 rather than 1917 could have brought about German defeat fast enough to prevent the outbreak of the Bolshevik Revolution in Russia. If that had turned out differently, the world would have turned out to be a much, much, much better place.
Of course, these hypotheticals get a little imponderable and on some level there's no real point. It is, however, interesting to note how absurd it would seem to use the 4th of July as an opportunity to whip up anti-English sentiment -- even just joking anti-English -- in the way that one sees in, say, Ireland. After all, America's "best friends" on the international stage just are our former colonial overlord along with the other ex-colonies who maintained a closer association with the Empire. Our countries form a reasonably natural "set" and ever since the second world war have striven to work closely together despite a lack of formal institutional ties. So it stands to reason to think that it would have been better to have been cooperating in that manner all along.















So it was dollar shot night wherever you were last night, huh?
July 3, 2006 11:37 AM | Reply | Permalink
Um, Matt, how are you factoring in the American civil war here?
July 3, 2006 12:00 PM | Reply | Permalink
What Percy said. The first bill to outlaw slavery in the colonies was introduced in Parliament, IIRC, in 1776. It failed, but the anti-slavery movement was very strong in GB and the writing was on the wall.
Other issues were economic, for instance the prohibition on iron-working; and diplomatic, treaties with the French and Native-American tribes wold have kept Daniel Boone from grabbing the good land in Kentucky.
The relative percentage of Scottish and Irish residents was also increasing. War was inevitable.
July 3, 2006 12:08 PM | Reply | Permalink
One other thing to consider is that Napoleon wouldn't have sold Louisiana to the British Empire (even if British North American had become some sort of quasi-autonomous province within the Empire) - and the US wouldn't have become a continent-straddling superpower of the kind that would have made (and did make) such a huge difference in WWI and WWII without the Westward expansion. Similarly it's hard to imagine the British Empire picking a fight with Mexico over Texas.
July 3, 2006 12:24 PM | Reply | Permalink
This Washingtonian counter-factual is treated entertainingly in The Two Georges by Richard DREYFUSS and Harry TURTLEDOVE.
Oh, and Britain offered to go to war with Mexico on behalf of the Republic of Texas, provided that the Republic of Texas free its slaves. My great, great grandfather and his partner in Galveston, Gail BORDEN, were all in favor of that. But, Sam HOUSTON and the slave-owning planters up-river prevailed.
Eric FLINT also deals with some of the later Jacksonian counter-factuals in The River Wars.
These are no substitute for historical scholarship. But, counter-factual novels are better than the sort of chauvinistic myth-history taught is grade-school when it comes to understanding what we are and could be.
::JRBehrman
July 3, 2006 12:50 PM | Reply | Permalink
"...and diplomatic, treaties with the French and Native-American tribes wold have kept Daniel Boone from grabbing the good land in Kentucky."
Except that under the aegis of international law the newly formed republic was legally bound to honor the treaties and laws of the Brits, just as the US is legally bound to honor the laws of Spain and Mexico with the southwest cessions. Kentucky was "taken" by treaty also, not Boone's adventurism. Sort of a fluke, at least in the Cherokee POV. They negotiated a treaty of peace and friendship, and the land cessions were added after, without the Cherokee's knowledge or agreements (selling land was a capital offence in Cherokee law.)
The Brits were much better in being upfront and honest, so Matts argument makes some sense to me.
At least the Brits may have had some influence on restraining the American's flagrant thievery. I wonder if Iraq would have been ethically possible if history had turned that way.
Neoboho
July 3, 2006 1:07 PM | Reply | Permalink
A bit off-topic, but I can't restrain myself. I read a fascinating essay once written by a Cherokee amatuer historian named Saunders, about Sam Houston. It began in Tennessee, with Houston involved in a "political marriage" with Chief Bowles daughter, Talahina. Since it was political, Talahina had no compunction against having a string of Indian lovers on hand, and Houstan began to suffer all sorts of social attacks at being a cuckhold. It got so bad that he eventually moved to Arkansas, but Talahina followed him there and his agony continued. He finally ran away to Texas, the story went, and even signed on to the Republic movement in order to get his past behind him and across an international boundary.
I've always wondered how much truth there was behind Saunders' story. He did some other work that is quite good, mostly in cataloging Cherokee graves in Oklahoma.
Neoboho
July 3, 2006 1:18 PM | Reply | Permalink
Re: One other thing to consider is that Napoleon wouldn't have sold Louisiana to the British Empire (even if British North American had become some sort of quasi-autonomous province within the Empire) - and the US wouldn't have become a continent-straddling superpower of the kind that would have made
The Southwest (including probably Texas) would still be part of Mexico, and Hawaii would probably be an independent nation, like Samoa and Tonga. But Florida was under British rule in 1776, and was only returned to Spain in the Peace of Paris in 1783. Also, the British claims in Oregon were stronger than either Spain's or Russia's. As for Louisiana, Napoleon would not have sold it*, but the British would have easily conquered it outright to prevent the French from using it as a base against British North America. After Trafalgar there would have been nothing Napoleon could have done to stop them. As for Alaska, it might have remained Russian, but the Tsar had pressing financial reasons for its sale in 1867 and I can't see any other possible buyer except the newly indepedent United Provinces of North America.
* Of course the question exists whether Lousiana would have reverted to France from Spanish rule in 1803. In fact, there's a whole can of historical worms we could open up as to what the lack of an American Revolution bankrupting Louis XVI's government and inciting a passion for liberty, would have meant for France and Europe.
July 3, 2006 1:21 PM | Reply | Permalink
So in 1837 when Parliament outlaws slavery the South rebels against Britain and promptly gets its butt handed to it by the joint efforts of Britain and the northern provinces (including Canada). They wouldn't have been dealing with George III, Lord North or Cornwallis, they wouldn't have had a France they could to for alliance, in fact their espousal of slavery would have poisoned any claims of liberty and revolt against "tyranny" they might have made.
July 3, 2006 1:24 PM | Reply | Permalink
My conjectures:
1. Louisiana would be taken from France in the same way as several other colonies, including South Africa (conquered when Holland was absorbed by France). So not much difference there.
2. As colonies would become more populous than the mother country, the political system would accomodate them. Recall that Infant Pedro of Portugal proclaimed himself an Emperor of Brasil, and what could Portugal do? Perhaps the Brasilian example would be emulated and North America would become an independent empire called Edwardia or some such. Emperor Edward would rule over all former British colonies in Americas except for Falklands and Guyana. A series of wars agaist the Empire of Mexico would end with a marriage and personal union. The United Empire of Edwardia and Mexico would extend from Arctic to Costa Rica. [I really outdid myself. Whoa!]
July 3, 2006 2:35 PM | Reply | Permalink
Matt
I would recommend to you any book by Bernard Bailyn especially the "Ideological Origins of the Amermcian Revolution." It belies you point about there being no fundadmental disagreement between the British and the Americans. First and foremost those living in the American Colonies had ceased being British and had become Americans. They were no longer one people.
Secondarily the Americans were very receptive to the "country ideology" which was republican in nature. On almost every issue the British thought they were engaged in a reasonable liberal colonial policy. The Americans saw the very same policies as the height of tyranny. Even Franklin who wanted to preserve the link ultimately saw it was impossible.
Daniel A. Greenbaum
July 3, 2006 2:41 PM | Reply | Permalink
Of course the British would have ended up with Louisiana. Sure, Napoleon wouldn't have sold it to them, but look at every other formerly French (and Dutch) colony as of April 1814 - the British conquered them all because the French didn't have a navy to fight them. Given that holding on to Louisiana would have been of great interest to Britain's American colonists, it seems likely that it would have been among the former British, Dutch, and Spanish colonies (along with Trinidad [Spanish], Tobago and Saint Lucia (French), Cape Colony, British Guiana, and Ceylon [Dutch]) that the British kept in the peace settlement.
The real question, I think, is whether you get Spain's Latin American colonies struggling for independence in the same way as they did in regular history, without the American example. I'm not really sure. Perhaps their situation follows more the Brazilian path, with the four viceroyalties gaining semi-independence as Empires or Kingdoms under Bourbon princes.
July 3, 2006 3:07 PM | Reply | Permalink
Without the American Revolution to bankrupt France, they'd have bankrupted themselves shortly thereafter, anyway - they were very close to bankruptcy.
In 1787, they got into a diplomatic crisis with Britain and Prussia over the Netherlands. This was at about the same time that Prussia and Poland were involved in a crisis with France's allies Austria and Russia over the Ottoman Empire (with which Austria and Russia went to war). The British and Prussians supported their relations, the House of Orange, who were not the monarchs of the United Provinces, but a kind of hereditary governors, in a struggle against the "Patriot" party, consisting largely of the oligarchic elites of the province of Holland, who were supported by France. After the Patriots basically tried to dispossess the House of Orange, the Prussians, backed by the British, sent an army in to restore them.
The French were seriously pissed off, but because of their financial difficulties and the beginnings of a constitutional crisis, they were unable to do anything. With no American war, they'd probably be able to do something, and get themselves involved in a big continental war that would be much more expensive than their intervention in the American Revolution was. They'll financially collapse soon enough, and perhaps now the Revolution starts in the middle of a war, rather than the war starting up in the middle of the Revolution...things would be different, but probably not that different. The sicknesses of the Ancien Regime in France were of considerably longer scale origin than merely the intervention in America.
July 3, 2006 3:17 PM | Reply | Permalink
As I understand it (although I am no expert in colonial American history), more recent historiography has tended to be skeptical of the idea that a clear and separate "American" identity was established before the American Revolution. Obviously, there was a nascent sense of American identity that expanded in the aftermath of the Revolution, but there was still also a lot of loyalty to the British, and a sense of a common Transatlantic identity. (Plus, the existence of a quite distinct Scottish identity did not prevent that country from remaining a part of the United Kingdom)
In terms of the "country ideology" I find that even less convincing, since that ideology (which was not inherently republican) was found in Britain as well, and in fact derived from there. The North government was most certainly not seen by a large number of British as engaging in a "reasonable liberal colonial policy". Both the Chathamites and the Rockinghamites (the latter of whom held the "country ideology" at least as strongly as the patriots in the colonies, although it expressed itself in a somewhat different form among the Whig aristocrats of the Rockingham faction than it did in the colonies) saw the North government's policies as needlessly provocative to the colonists. Perhaps if Chatham hadn't had a mental breakdown right after becoming Prime Minister in 1766, things would have turned out differently.
July 3, 2006 3:25 PM | Reply | Permalink
The country ideology was British in origin. However, it was a failure in Britain but successful in America.
Daniel A. Greenbaum
July 3, 2006 3:37 PM | Reply | Permalink
In the 18th century all or almost all the European nations were in desperate straits financially, not just France. Some, like Prussia, were arguably worse off. On the one hand enormous social and economic changes were taking place (including the beginnings of the modern population boom) which were placing massive stress of government coffers. On the other hand the mechanisms of government financing had not changed much since the late Renaissance, and had not been very adequate even back then. And in an unhappy parallel to today, the gap between have and have-nots was widening exponentially, with a small oligarchial class (not necessarily the titled nobility) capturing all but a pittance of their world’s wealth and income— and because these folk controlled the levers of power, they were able to reject any solution which required them to cough up more guilders and florins to the public purse. Recall that our own Revolution was sparked by Parliament’s attempt to raise revenues from its colonies-- raising them at home was politically impossible, but the colonists, even the wealthiest of them, had no political power to resist.
This is why the wars of the 18th century tended to be very limited and mannerly: no one could afford an all-out war. Even the initial phase of the Revolutionary Wars started out that way. It was only when the Jacobins repudiated the French royal debt and ginned up the printing press with assignats (thereby temporarily solving their financing problem) and then tossed Louis’ head out to the foes that the European powers realized that they were in a changed world and were fighting a war of survival. Frightening one and all with the specter of Jacobin tyranny they were finally able to break the financing log jam at home, in effect telling their oligarchs, Pay now or lose your heads later.
July 3, 2006 3:49 PM | Reply | Permalink
Daniel, my understanding is that both colonists and the English used the same conceptual framework in the lead up to the Revolution; they just interpreted things differently. So, Gordon Wood argues that the American colonists rebelled on behalf of the English Constitution -- they thought that the English constitution was ideal in principle but that the English practice had betrayed that fundamentally sound principle. (See Wood's Creation of the American Republic for lots and lots of details.)
(Interestingly, Wood also argues that the American experience trying to form state governments totally changed the colonists' understanding of key political concepts. By the time of the Constitution, Wood contends, one could legitimately speak of an "American political system.")
On the formation of identity, I'd recommend Linda Colley's book Britons. Although it deals mostly with the late-nineteenth century, it's still a really intriguing look at how "English" and "Scot" and "Welsh" and maybe even "Irish" became "British" (or "Britons"). One of the points that evolves out of this is that a British identity also wasn't well established at the time.
Bailyn is still important but is no longer the last word on the matter. For a concise summary, I'd recommend Alan Gibson's book Interpreting the Founding (2006, actually), which chronicles the last century of historical debate on the American Revolution. Although Gibson eschews the term “paradigm” as “hoary and overused”—as well as inaccurate -- he inventories five main schools or trends in historical thought. First, the Progressive interpretation, associated with Charles Beard and focused on economic interests. Second, the liberal tradition, espoused by Louis Hartz. Third, the republican synthesis (hi, Bailyn and GWood and PGAPocock!). Fourth, the Scottish Enlightenment explanation, notably characterized as “liberalism in a different key.” And fifth, the polyglot outgrowth of the “new” social history that explored the experiences of, among others, ordinary workers, slaves, Native Americans, and women. Gibson argues that each historical school offers continuing avenues of exploration and suggests that future historical work will productively play them off each other.
In other words, I agree with your suggestion to Matt that there were some important differences between Americans and English at the time of the Revolution -- and that some Americans and some English were aware of those key differences.
But I don't think one can legitimately speak of an "American" identity. After all, even the national Constitution of 1787 was not sold as the creation of a "nation" but the union of sovereign states! The whole issue of a "nation" wasn't officially settled until the Civil War. To steal a sports analogy, then, good hustle on the Revolution, Founders!
PSA: There is a Users' Help Forum.
July 3, 2006 4:28 PM | Reply | Permalink
Surely there are less drastic history revisions that would have kept George Bush the Younger out of the presidency? For example, what if the US Supreme Court had upheld the Constitution way back in 2000?
Hoppy in Sacramento
July 3, 2006 4:33 PM | Reply | Permalink
Unlike my dear friend jlkenney (aka the GM), I am something of an expert on Early American history (well, okay, a grad student).
Even though I've got my training wheels on, I can still say that while Greenbaum and others are rushing to cite one or two factors to prove that the revolution was or was not inevitable, it's far more complex than that. You're not going to settle this issue on a comment thread, and no one book, no matter how influential or brilliant, can settle this matter. There is no clear historiographical consensus on the of the revolution; ask a room of thirty early Americanists, and you'll get about ninety different answers.
While I like Matt's question (could statesmanship have avoided the Revolution?), perhaps a better (or easier to imagine) counterfactual scenario is: what if the Americans lost? It doesn't matter how inevitable you think the revolution was; the American victory itself was contingent on all sorts of minute variables, from leaders' personalities to epidemics to weather. Just a few small decisions or chance occurences could have assured a British victory.
Rocketing forward to suggest the implications of the Revolution on WWII is a big counterfactual mess. Even if something resembling the United States was part of a British commonwealth on the eve of war, despite its political affiliations, it would still be an economic and demographic giant compared to Britain. (This would be true even if these North American provinces failed to make the Louisiana Purchase or to seize the northern provinces of Mexico.) It's even possible to suppose that these vast provinces would have representation in Parliament, just as the colonists requested. (Considering that counterfactual, one could even imagine that Parliament, if not the monarchy, would have moved to this side of the Atlantic at some point in the late nineteenth or early twentieth century.)
Rather than picturing Great Britian as an island nation off of Europe mulling its options regarding Hitler's Germany, perhaps we should instead visualize a much Greater Britain, a transatlantic polity that would be less inclined to care about the Continent. There's little reason to assume that without the Revolution, America would have been quicker to enter the war. In fact, just the opposite could be true; without the Revolution, the British might have been slower to fight the Germans.
The more you think about this, and begin to weigh other factors, like the eventual course of European politics, the stickier it gets. That's the nature of counterfactuals.
As for my own thoughts on this, I still feel that if politician had managed to avoid the Revolution, or if the Continental Army had lost it, there would have still been countless smaller or not-so-small revolutions that would have followed. Imperial policy towards native lands undoubtably would have continued to upset backcountry settlers, leading to constant strife from the periphery, and the question of abolition would have alienated southern planters. I can imagine all sorts of strange events, including a prolonged backwoods rebellion that would have pitted Scots-Irish colonists against English and other colonists and their native allies , or a southern/Carribbean revolution led by planter elites against the abolition movement that could have resulted in an independent slaveholding confederacy stretching from Texas to Jamaica. But, like any other counterfactuals, these are highly speculative scenarios. I hope they illustrate my point that this is a very, very complex question without any easy or definitive answers.
And as a shout-out to jlkenney: stop reading blogs and go back to l'archive.
July 3, 2006 4:44 PM | Reply | Permalink
Training wheels should never stop you. :)
PSA: There is a Users' Help Forum.
July 3, 2006 5:04 PM | Reply | Permalink
If we'd gotten into World War II in 1939 rather than 1941 the war, presumably, have been considerably shorter and many lives could have been saved.
that's ridiculous. If we had gone to war in 1939, Hitler might have decided to put off attacking the U.S.S.R. If we had attacked before Hitler became mired in Russia, we would have probably had casualties at least three or four times greater than the ones we suffered. Plus, Stalin would have been in that much better a position at the start of the Cold War.
In many ways the German army was superior to ours on a man-for-man basis. If Hitler had not lost so many in the vain attempt to ocnquer the Soviets, I'm not even certain we would have won.
"You say I'm a dreamer. We're two of a kind. Looking for some perfect world that we both know that we'll never find." - Thompson Twins, "Hold Me Now"
July 3, 2006 5:22 PM | Reply | Permalink
I would suggest that the non-French powers took rather longer than January 1793 to realize that they were facing something different. Only the Spanish can plausibly be said to have gotten into the war on ideological principle. The English and Dutch clearly entered to protect strategic interests in the Austrian Netherlands.
The way the allies campaigned in 1793 was desultory and uninspired. Despite their success in forcing the French armies out of the Rhineland and Belgium, they showed no inclination towards marching on Paris and overthrowing the Revolution. Instead, they sat about and besieged border fortresses, and argued among themselves about the spoils, until the levée en masse, the organizational skills of Carnot, and the increasing competence of the French military leadership (particularly Jourdan and Hoche) turned the tables on them in the fall.
And then the 1794 campaign is equally uninspired and desultory. The Austrians and Prussians are more interested in getting their piece of the final partition of Poland, and the Prussians, in particular, have been essentially acting pretty unapologetically as mercenaries since at least the failure at Valmy in 1792. Their only interest has been their subsidy from the Brits, and right up to the fall of 1806 they never show any real sign of seeing France as an actual threat - they sign a separate peace in 1795 and basically hope that with a neutralized and dominated northern Germany they can ignore the events surrounding them.
The Austrians and British start to wake up sooner, but I think in both cases it's not really until Napoleon's victories in Italy of 1796-7 that the real threat France poses to the international order becomes evident. And domestically, I'd say that the French Revolution is never a serious threat to any of the great powers. None of them (Austria, Britain, Prussia, Russia) experiences any significant revolutionary unrest during the whole period - it's always the external threat that comes through.
July 3, 2006 6:04 PM | Reply | Permalink
"on some level there's no real point." Yeah, well, always good to have a reminder why I should hate the celebrity and career potential of people whose main track record is blogging.
John
http://www.haberarts.com/
July 3, 2006 6:05 PM | Reply | Permalink
One thing to consider is that the "White Dominions"/Britain relationship is strongly affected by the fact that the "White Dominions" are always considerably less populous than the metropole. Even today, there are 60 million in the UK, and about the same number in Canada+New Zealand+Australia+white population of South Africa (the black majority probably shouldn't count for this purpose, since it wasn't ever part of the political system). And in the 19th century these areas were even more sparsely settled compared to the metropole.
And another example to consider, of course, is that of Ireland. Ireland has a lot in common with the UK, too - common language, common history, and so forth, and has always maintained certain ties to England - I think there've always been very loose immigration policies, and now with the EU they of course have close political ties. As far as I can tell, Irish and British people tend to mostly get along these days, too, and hatred of the English, in the Republic at least, is considerably less than it used to be (hating the English isn't ridiculous, like it is in the US, but then again hating the English wasn't ridiculous in the US for a long time, either - we were still making war plans to fight the British during the interwar period) During the 19th entury, the Irish were represented at Westminster, and I think even over-represented, and certainly after 1884 suffrage was such that these seats were mostly representint the Catholic majority. And yet the Irish were never willing to accept their place in the United Kingdom.
I think American representation at Westminster, combined with continuing British policies of limiting western settlement, and the high likelihood of abolition at some point, might make the American situation more closely resemble the Irish than the Canadian (although there are obvious ways in which the Irish case is unique)...
July 3, 2006 6:19 PM | Reply | Permalink
Re: None of them (Austria, Britain, Prussia, Russia) experiences any significant revolutionary unrest during the whole period
That's true, but it doesn't mean the ruling class wasn't terrified of the possibility. There was a huge reaction against all forms of liberalism at that time: the despots dropped the "enlightened" pretense. We even saw a small echo of it in the young USA with the Alien and Sedition Acts. In a way it was much like the hysteria that surrounded the opening years of the Cold War. There was never a danger that that the USA would undergo a Communist Revolution but that didn't stop people from being paranoid about the possibility, or demagogues from profitting by that fear.
July 3, 2006 7:12 PM | Reply | Permalink
There certainly was a vast ideological difference - the right to self-determination v. the rights of divine kingship. Those men who facilitated the break with England did so because they were true believers in the rights of man, that people had the right to govern themselves and that no man has the right to rule others by virtue of his birth or station in life.
July 3, 2006 7:14 PM | Reply | Permalink
To Ms. Bev’s point, I think the following complaint against “Mad” George (I mean the III, not the present one) in the Declaration of Independence, is very apt:
“In every stage of these Oppressions we have Petitioned for Redress in the most humble Terms: Our repeated Petitions have been answered only by repeated Injury. A Prince, whose Character is thus marked by every act which may define a Tyrant, is unfit to be the Ruler of a free People.”
Gee, if you change “Prince” to “President”, it may still be apt.
July 3, 2006 8:36 PM | Reply | Permalink
Of course the other consequence of no American revolution is a sort supercharged Anglo-American imperialism, the British Empire on anabolic steroids. How much of the world would have been free of our grip? No Hitler, but likely also no effective Ghandi able to overcome an exhausted England after World War I. We assume the end of colonialism was inevitable, but I see no particular reason why. Considering the vast power and resource disparities between the first and third worlds today, how inconceivable is it that the latter could still be colonial possessions? The fact that they aren't is down to the European self-immolation in WWI and the anti-colonial ideological principles first given practical form in our Revolution. Without the Revolution, neither of these preconditions would have held.
July 4, 2006 6:33 AM | Reply | Permalink
America wasn't and isn't perfect.. name me one nation that was or is.. human beings can never attain attain perfection. I will say that despite our nation's wrongdoings, many of it's people have been the most willing to examine it's nations wrongs and to be willing to address them. The very nature of our constitution and bill of rights allowed our citizenry to have the potential to be able to overcome the wrongs and foibles that are the result of all too human wrongdoings.
Yglesias puts forward Canada as one example of what America could have been had we not sought to be an independent and free nation. Others have rationalized that Britain was more "honest" and for example, that native peoples wouldn't have had their lands seized by "white" people, etc.. because Britain honored treaties, etc..
I'd like to counter with what might have been the outcome for Canada, et al.. had there not been an American revolution.
Firstly, countries that are establishing colonies, that make inroads into other countries do so to to take over and exploit the resources, including the peoples of those countries. This is true whether we're talking about any country, be it white, black or any of the many shades in between. This has gone on long before Britain or even the Roman empire ever cast it's eyes beyond it's own borders.. and it still continues to this day, whether we're talking about what's happening in Darfur, what China has done and still does in Tibet, what the Soviet Union did, and what Putin still tries to do, what the Dominican Republic does in Haiti... plus much more. The native peoples of Canada were being fought, killed, their lands seized, and it continued under British rule.
Britain wasn't interested in maintaining treaties with France or other countries, their intent was to ultimately have control over as much of the globe as possible. It's laws governing it's colonies in the new world were specific to the fact that those colonies were to only make trade laws that benefited Britain and hurt other trading countries. Britain, which had no problem grinding the people of Ireland, Scotland and elsewhere, including their colonists of the neww world under it's heels, who were the ones ultimately advocating for the exploitation of the native peoples of the new world, and their lands (and ultimately he native peoples of other lands, India comes first to mind) in the seizing of the cited, Kentucky from the tribes that lived there. Britain had massive debt that included expenses from it's other empire building activities.. and it's own citizenry could be taxed only so much... so it was exceedingly willing to overlook appearances as far away from home as possible.
Let's consider the seperation of church and state which so many here express great concern about. It was one of the huge outcomes from the American revolution, it's cited as an example that the common people of the US could become a self governing people in it's own right... and lead to similar demands in Canada who were able to force the British crown to fear facing a similar revolution in Canada.
The US revolution inspired the whigs in Britain, people in Ireland, the Netherlands, Poland, Portugal, France (the so called French revolution was becoming a prime example of a failed revolution), Spain and even Latin America to seek freedom and redress wrongs.
Again, I'm not claiming we achieved perfection, but the American ideal did inspire a desire for freedom that gave hope to common peoples around the world. Also, our founding fathers, as flawed as they might have been were passionate enough about the principles of freedom and liberty that they bent over backwards to create a document that allowed a people the ability to overcome the many mistakes that being human beings they could end up making.
July 4, 2006 8:39 AM | Reply | Permalink
Re: We assume the end of colonialism was inevitable, but I see no particular reason why.
Economics and changing cultural priorities. Those empires ended up costing too much (as empires usually do) and people quit supporting such policies as liberalism at home made them ashamed to be imperialists abroad. Also, World War I or something very much like it was inevitable: the powers of Europe were on a major collision course that nothing could have prevented. Sooner or later they were going to tear themselves to pieces.
July 4, 2006 8:40 AM | Reply | Permalink
I could see possible result where the American South, possibly joined by the British Caribbean, ended up as a separate nation. The North however was pro-British almost as soon as the Revolution ended, and probably would have remained in union with the rest of British North America (Canada and Oregon territory.)
July 4, 2006 8:44 AM | Reply | Permalink
Re: For example, what if the US Supreme Court had upheld the Constitution way back in 2000?
He still would have won Florida by a few hundred votes. The Florida scandal of 2000 wasn't the vote count, but the fact that so many legitimate voters were turned away from the polls.
July 4, 2006 8:45 AM | Reply | Permalink
But there wouldn't have been an America without a revolution... thereby no American government that could have had the decision making power to achieve anything, let alone it's being a power to contend with. So it would have been exclusively Anglo.
I just wanted to add that despite all the America bashing, that the presidency of George W. Bush wasn't pre-ordained, it was the by product of extremist thinking, just as other wrongs in history have been the by product of extemist thinking the world over.
This morning on Washington Journal, one of the questions discussed was is dissent unpatriotic. The discussion broke down based on ideology, my opinion is that it isn't, but where we're going wrong these days is that we no longer have a free press. Since the loss of the fairness doctrine, since the deregulation of press and media has taken place our media is now controlled by a handfull of people/corporations. So there isn't a watchdog out there reporting/challenging the lies that are told, by the political extremists out there.
July 4, 2006 8:50 AM | Reply | Permalink
This thread reminds me of a story, probably apocraphyl. Apparently, in the 1820s, a couple bright lads from a New England village returned for the holidays. One had gone to Harvard while one had gone to Yale. They began debating the history of the American Revolution, which was around 50 years past at that point, raising some of the same issues that arose in this thread.
Eventually, they remembered that one of the old guys in the village had actually fought in the Revolution, so they decided he should arbitrate their disagreement. They went up to him and each regurgitated the views they had learned from their professors. Then they asked him who was right.
"'Tweren't none of that," said the old man.
The young men were stunned. "Then what was it?"
He replied, "They meant to rule us and we never meant to let 'em."
July 4, 2006 9:41 AM | Reply | Permalink
The very thought that the U.S. could have become as bland, as tasteless and odorless as Canada -- no frontier humor!no Mark Twain! no Jesse James or Al Capone or Hollywood gangsters or Ralph Ellison or Blues or Jazz or hip hop or Jackson Pollack or Norman Mailer, etc., etc. -- has filled me with a rush of pride for our 1776 guys. Thank god they saved us from a fate worse than death!
July 4, 2006 10:31 AM | Reply | Permalink
However a president has a term in office, and there are rules governing the ability to remove a president, whereas a prince is not so easily removed.
A president is elected by the people, a prince is in power given his lineage..
July 4, 2006 11:11 AM | Reply | Permalink
Surely American troops on the Western Front in 1940 might have prevented the fall of France?
July 4, 2006 2:25 PM | Reply | Permalink
Mike
The longer I teach the less expert I become at anything, but, as I can still find my office three out of four times without trying too, too hard, let me take the speculation in a slightly different direction. I start with three dates:
1776,
1783,
1789. While most of the speculative history in this thread looks to the first and second of these, it is the third upon which I'd like to speculate: Suppose the "Founding Fathers" had done what they were articled to do in Philadelphia: amend the Articles of Confederation. What would today's world look like then?
Charles A. Beard (do people still read him in graduate school?) understood the Constitution to be an economic document as much as a political one. I wonder. . .and the older I get the more I wonder. We're quite sure in this country that Bigger is Better. But is it? Quite little states have been able to maintain their independence and chart their own courses across centuries. And as the country shakes out into red states and blue states, I often wonder whether it might not have been better to maintain a number of "Lively Experiments"--laboratories in which the theories of what constitutes the good life, or the commonwealth, could be tested against each other.
I have to confess I might wonder a little less about this if the blue states were in the driver's seat. [sigh].
Happy Fourth, everyone.
July 4, 2006 4:06 PM | Reply | Permalink
That's presupposing the elements that later became the Vichy government wouldn't have sided with the German invaders and betrayed the American troops.
July 4, 2006 5:22 PM | Reply | Permalink
What a lot of tripe!
I don't think any of the commenters here (or the columnists) have the slightest idea of what the American Revolution was.
It was an overclass co-opting of a grassroots anger against the overclass. The Founding Fathers were the object of hatred of most of the colonial subjects, as were the brits for the most part. But the Founders used propaganda (like the Declaration of Independence) and dirty tricks to cram the Constitution down the throats of an unwilling majority. Unlike today when we have so many lower middle class people licking the ideological boots of the overclass (see all the comments here and this columns, for example), most colonials knew that the overclass was their mortal enemy.
The common working class people at that time despised Jefferson, Madison, Washington, et al., and knew them for the murdering, slave-owning, monstrous exploiters-of-the-poor that they were. But 200 some odd years laters, the overclass has completely domesticated most Americans through molding of the American Culture. And you all are prime examples of the domestic human animals that have been created by that overclass-friendly American culture.
Here is an online book by a PhD in political science that explains about what really happened back then, if you precious darlings can stand to read something longer than a single webpage, that is....
///////////////
My documentary/book in progress is at http://www.leftwingmediamachine.blogspot.com
July 4, 2006 5:37 PM | Reply | Permalink
Interestingly, this "fun history factoids" piece in the Sun. Times "Week in Review" section
Celebrating July 2: 10 Days That Changed History By ADAM GOODHEART
has a different narrative to yours:
While both are simplistic, I myself believe the narrative based on J. Carter Brown's statement is a bit more accurate, that one can't easily say that the American Revolution "bankrupted" France. After all, they had quite a lot of other things that intervened shortly thereafter, that you are leaving out, like some guillotines and stuff.
P.S. The other factoids in the article are fun, recommeded for those who enjoy contrarian historical challenges....
July 4, 2006 5:45 PM | Reply | Permalink
Woudl we have been able to get enough men and munitions there in time? British North America might have declared war in 1939 but it might not have mobilized all that fast. Even in the post Pearl Harbor war frenzy it still took about two years before the US was ready and able to accomplish much.
July 4, 2006 5:55 PM | Reply | Permalink
The Declaration is factually wrong. By George III's time the Crown was no longer the main power in the state. That role had shifted to parliament. The decisions, unjust, incompetent and arbitrary as they were, that led to US independence were made by ministers acting in the name of George III, not the king himself, and by Parliament.
A prince may be hard to remove but George III's ministers could be and were removed at the instance of Parliament at frequent intervals.
On the larger issue in this thread, I doubt the British would have moved so calmly and quickly to concede responsible government to their remaining colonies if the the US had not proved that Britain had no choice. Its interesting that in Ireland, where the population ratio and short distance made it possible, the British held on hard as long as they could.
July 4, 2006 6:39 PM | Reply | Permalink
I believe you are fundamentally mistaken.(To disclose my honors thesis was on Bailyn's works) While there are many different causes for the Revolution economic, cultural, social all of which contributed to tensions between the British and the Americans. However, the question of is I was addressing was the direct one raised by Matt's oringal post. That there was no reason for disputes between the Colonies and the Mother Country. How events and actions were preceived in any historical setting is a key question. The British and the Colonists ceased to see the same events in the same way. Did it make the Revolution inevitable? Absolutely not. Did it make it more likely and provide reasons for disputes between the two sides I think the answer is yes.
I am aware that the vogue is Altantic History which interests me a great deal. There has been many town studies and studies of the disaffected and the Revolution for example by Alfred Young and Gary Nash. Who else would you suggest reading?
Daniel A. Greenbaum
July 4, 2006 8:12 PM | Reply | Permalink
Hoo boy! And the cradle of democracy was a slave state (Greece). So, were INDIANS men? Were AFRICANS men? Were WOMEN men? Forgive me, Bev - I'm reliving a seminar moment, when we participants were tasked to determine what was meant by "We, the People..." You know, who is we? It reduces down to white men, or more specifically, property owners. F.S. Northrop defined the Constitution as a property law document, and the Bill of Rights was necessary to protect people from it. [ The Meeting of East and West]
Neoboho
July 4, 2006 8:27 PM | Reply | Permalink
"The very nature of our constitution and bill of rights allowed our citizenry to have the potential to be able to overcome the wrongs and foibles that are the result of all too human wrongdoings."
Tolerance, Mary from RI, and accepting that not all of us have the same opinion is an important part of being a real American.
July 4, 2006 9:02 PM | Reply | Permalink
aMike Is it fair to suggest that the Declaration of Independence didn't create the American Nation...rather, the Constitution of the United States did? Many of the leading lights of the Revolution were quite dubious about the new Constitution. Patrick Henry wasn't a fan of it, Neither was Sam Adams (the guy who [didn't] brew beer). Jefferson was reluctant to accept the new document without the Bill of Rights. The tension between the Declaration and the Constitution is fairly palpable. Here's to the publication of the Declaration, which we celebrate this day. For those interested in this, the arguments of the Anti-Federalists can be found at http://grid.let.rug.nl/~usa/D/1776-1800/federalist/antixx.htm or, in slightly different form, at http://www.constitution.org/afp/afpchron.htm
The Soul of America is embedded in the Declaration. Save for the Bill of Rights, the Constitution retreats from the principals of the Declaration and the self-evident Truths it proclaims. Perhaps the Anti-Federalists weren't the literary stylists the Federalists were. Yet there are reasons today to review the cautions found in some of them.
Happy Fourth (well, it's still the fourth Central Daylight Time and west). :-)
July 4, 2006 9:46 PM | Reply | Permalink
Mary from RI, You have no historical basis for your somewhat silly statement. I don't think there is any evidence the your so-called "elements of the Vichy" ever collaborated with the Germans before they invaded France.
Please, correct me if I'm wrong.
July 5, 2006 4:59 AM | Reply | Permalink
Look at the Louisiana exercises of 1940 to get a sense of the readiness of US troops to participate in anything on the Western Front. These exercises had numerous positive effects, bringing a young staff brigadier named Eisenhower to notice, and letting Patton develop armored tactics (with a partially simulated force) that was so effective that his division was eventually told to stand down so the exercise controllers could assess the effectiveness of other parts of the army-level exercises.
Look at the isolationist sentiment in 1940, and the lack of aircraft. I do not believe the US forces available in 1940 would have achieved much but getting slaughtered in France. Even after the entry into the war, we were still identifying the useless commanders like Fredendall, as well as anti-armor weapons, resulting in the fiasco of Kasserine Pass.
While there were US desires to intervene cross-channel as early as 1942 (see the proposed SLEDGEHAMMER, BOLERO and ROUNDUP plans), the Dieppe raid disaster (Operation JUBILEE) proved that mid-1942 was too early to go against a serious defense -- North Africa and Guadalcanal weren't France.
In 1940, there were neither the ready troops nor the convoys to get them there. The Normandy invasion was the point, in June 1944, where the pieces really came together, from ways to supply without initially seizing a port, to adequate landing craft, to Hobart's Funnies, to sufficiently large assault forces. Even then, the air support was badly flawed, and Omaha Beach was a very near-run thing.
--
Howard
*equal opportunity offense to both extremes*
July 5, 2006 5:07 AM | Reply | Permalink
Another enlightening post, Mary from RI! I had no idea that presidents are elected to a term in office and that there are rules governing a president's removal from office.
I must have slept through the fifth grade and the '90s!
July 5, 2006 5:26 AM | Reply | Permalink
I'm surprised no one has mentioned the world war that actually occurred when most of the major figures of the Revolution were still alive - the French Revolution/Napoleonic wars. Since the U.S. (or rather the British colonies) only had about 3 million people at this time, their addition to the British side would not have been as great an impact as in World War I or World War II, but it would have had some effect. If Napoleon had been deposed at an earlier date, or never even come to power at all, the Holy Roman Empire might have existed past 1806, inhibiting German and Italian unification and possibly leading to no World War I or II. But far be it from me to argue that independence was wrong, since a different outcome for the Napoleonic wars could perhaps, by some scenario we couldn't even begin to sketch out, have led to something as bad as (or, if possible, even worse than) Hitler and Stalin. And come to think of it, without our inspiration and the bankruptcy of the French treasury from funding us, there might not have been any French Revolution at all, and who knows what would have happened then? The point is, a scenario in which the world in 1914 or 1939 is exactly the same, except Britain owns the U.S., is an absurd one.
July 5, 2006 7:45 AM | Reply | Permalink
In the real world, the French fought hard in 1940 and certainly didn't collaborate with the Germans. The French were simply militarily defeated. Collaboration didn't start until after the surrender.
July 5, 2006 3:50 PM | Reply | Permalink
The Battle of France was a much more close run thing than the common imagination allows. Even a not terribly large or well-trained American force might have been sufficient to change the result.
July 5, 2006 3:52 PM | Reply | Permalink
Re: If Napoleon had been deposed at an earlier date, or never even come to power at all, the Holy Roman Empire might have existed past 1806, inhibiting German and Italian unification
The HRE had ceased to be anything but a pure legal fiction even in Germany. And it had not even held onto that much of a shred of its former dignity in Italy. Ultimately there was going to be a struggle for the control of Germany between Prussia and Austria and the winner was going to form a Second Reich to replace the ghost of the HRE.
July 5, 2006 3:58 PM | Reply | Permalink
As a Californian, may I humbly point out that without independence, a) Napoleon would have sooner smothered his pate in ketchup than sell Louisiana to the British, and b) Mexico would never have lost the West in 1848, and may even have acquired Louisiana itself. Needless to say, there would have been a smidgen more economic parity between the US and Mexico than there is now. California might even have been fighting illegal immigration along its eastern borders rather than its southern.
July 5, 2006 5:32 PM | Reply | Permalink
An interesting point. Consider that if there was no American Revolution, the French Revolution might have turned out differently as well. That would have repercussions on whether Napoleon would have risen to power or not, on whether the Prussian kings would have been delayed or aided in coalescing with the rest of the German states, whether Bavaria would have joined the Austrians instead (the two had stronger cultural ties, but Bismark bribed Ludwig II), and, well...
The list goes on. In the end, it's all just idle distractions from current problems. Good for fiction and games, but a dangerous path since there can never be testing of the theories. Better to just analyse what did happen, and what lessons were learned.
July 6, 2006 1:16 AM | Reply | Permalink
I think that's a valid issue here. In creating this alternate history, what if the American colonists actually achieved representation in Parliament? It is concievable that this radical change could have done the opposite of what Mr. Yglesias muses, and made England more like America. As the population of the colonies overtook that of Great Britain, American attitudes would end up shaping British politics more, but without the tempering of independence. The rest of Europe might have united behind the French and Austrians, fearful of British might.
It could be a wonderful setting for a story, but the way this British Empire would have evolved is too unpredictable for me.
July 6, 2006 1:28 AM | Reply | Permalink
Please describe the general composition of your proposed unit for intervention, and how it would have deployed to the theater of operations. Do focus on US units that were actually combat-ready at the time.
--
Howard
*equal opportunity offense to both extremes*
July 6, 2006 9:44 AM | Reply | Permalink
A question for Matt that I should have asked earlier: is the title of this post a deliberate reference to William Appleman Williams? If so, is there a greater ideological significance to it -- or just a nice sound? And if it isn't a reference to WAW, well, it should be!
PSA: There is a Users' Help Forum.
July 6, 2006 12:17 PM | Reply | Permalink
Is it possible though that the Southwest (the Mexican North) might have seceeded from Mexico on its own, and formed its own nation? That's not all that fanciful. Central America was initially part of Mexico, but broke away, and then broke apart into five nations a few years later. Likewise in South America the Republic of New Grenada eventually fissioned into modern Colombia, Venezuela and Ecuador. And in El Norte neither the Native American peoples nor the European population was very fond of Mexico City. The Europeans in Santa Fe and in California tended to think of themselves as Spanish still, and they supported the US initially in the Mexican War, at least until the Anglos stole their lands and passed racist laws against them.
July 6, 2006 5:36 PM | Reply | Permalink
The independence of the USA from Britain was a crucial factor in enabling the abolition of slavery worldwide. It meant that pro-slavery factions in North America did not ally with the pro-slavery parliamentary factions financed by sugar planters in the Carribean. And the animosities in following US independence meant that anti-Slavery campaigners in Britain could tap into anti-American sentiments to fuel their case.
Not to be forgotten is the effective declaration of judicial independence in Britain in 1772 where colonial laws upholding slavary were held not to have 'full faith and credence' in Britain (to borrow a term from the US Constitution).
If the US and Britain had remained in the same poltical embrace, a reasonable counterfactual ( looking at proximate results of reent alternatives) is that a trans-atlantic pro-slavery consensus would have held out and the tensions resulting in the US Civil war would at some stage have involved Britain as well.
The anti-Slavery cause in the USA was on the back burner until the Great Exhibition in London in 1851. US manufacturers exhibited here and were mercilesly mocked in the European press because they came from a slave-supporting country. As the only Americans really paying attention to globalised trends they raised the profile of the debate back home.
Actually a good way of looking at the events of 1775-1783 is as a Civil War. Many Americans opposed the Revolution - I believe more Americans served in the Kings Uniform than in the Continental Army. And there was widespread support for the insurgents general political stance in Britain up until the moment when Franklin secured French intervention. After France entered the war of course Britain united in the war with France, the only European superpower, and its plans for invasion of Britain. Another interesting counterfactial is to speculate what would have happened if US interest in Paris had not been represented by a man (Franklin) who - shades of Haliburton? - had negotiated a commission on all arms deals from France to the USA and who consequently stood to loose financially if peace had been negotiated in 1780. As it very nearly was.
July 14, 2006 3:35 AM | Reply | Permalink