Fun With Political Philosophy
Sweet. A pretext to discuss the erstwhile subject of my honors thesis back in college lodged at the end of a Jonah Goldberg column:
Others are willing to talk about abortion but say, "Keep religion out of it." The New Republic's Peter Beinart, echoing the philosopher John Rawls, says abortion opponents should only make arguments "accessible to people of different religions, or no religion at all." This sounds reasonable too. But once religious views are declared illegitimate — a stance that would have surprised Martin Luther King Jr. — any unwelcome position can be branded "religious" and therefore out of bounds.
Ponnuru scrupulously sticks to nonreligious arguments. But that hasn't stopped critics from charging that his motives are unacceptably religious, while others have complained that he is too coldly rational. It seems Ponnuru's real sin isn't how he says things but that he says them at all.
Jonah veers of course here, but I think he's exactly right about Rawls' "political liberalism". The effort to impose the "accessible to all" criterion as something other than a mere tactic (obviously, all else being equal it's useful for your argument to be as widely accessible as possible) has the perverse consequence of enticing people into offering more-or-less bad faith arguments in favor of their positions. This winds up distorting and abusing the public debate in a much worse manner than allowing everyone to just say what they mean would do.















I'm puzzled by the recent prevalence of "Jonah is right" comments from liberals. Jonah is precisely wrong here, in both his reasoning and his ultimate conclusion, and although Matt raises a good reason for objection, it's ultimately an insufficient one.
Jonah uses a lazy heuristic in his point about MLK, where religous speaker = religious arguments = exactly the kind of religious arguments we'd expect to hear today, viz., narrow appeals to specific religious ideology. Yet if MLK did, in fact, base his religious appeals on sectarian thinking it didn't seem to bother King's many Jewish fans; it seems far likelier that his rhetoric was as universalist as we remember it, religious overtones notwithstanding. Which makes sense: arguments for full political equality for blacks appealed to narrower set of 1950s Americans than did arguments for Christian decency. What King did in framing his arguments with religious tones was to say, This is not an issue of material benefits for us, as blacks, but the logical consequence of something we all believe, as Christians and Americans.
Jonah's logical shortcut allows him to presume his conclusion, which is that sometimes sectarian arguments are permissible in a liberal society. But King is really a far better example of political arguments gaining legitimacy as they appeal to broader swaths of the population. (Accessible-to-all isn't a requirement of literally "all"; 90% or so might be sufficient, I should think.)
Now, as Matt points out, that may be tactically significant, but not important from a philosphical perspective. And he may be right, but he hasn't shown it yet. The "consequence of enticing people into offering more-or-less bad faith arguments in favor of their positions" is surely perverse from the standpoint of personal morality, but that hasn't been sufficient to show political immorality since Machiavelli came along. Accessibility-to-all doesn't just have tactical advantages, but it serves a morally significant purpose of making citizens feel as though their government is responding to all citizens equally, and so inspiring feelings of confidence and legitimacy, even when the underlying factual assumptions are mistaken. From a personal perspective, it's a sin and a lie; from the perspective of the governors, with duties to the whole of the polity, it's necessary and even a good thing. Gross hypocrisy? That's one way to describe it, but another is representative democracy.
A perennial example is the appropriations process. A great many legislators will support projects that benefit their own districts, and their real reasons for supporting those projects is precisely that they benefit their own districts; yet the reasons given in public appeal to more universal values of protecting the public welfare, etc. Repugnant, to be sure, but think of how much damage it would do to our national polity if representatives described the appropriations process as though it were merely the consequence of naked political power moves. More honest, sure. But it would do tremendous psychic harm to the notion that we're one nation, after all.
Notice also that Matt worries about Rawlsian universalism (although I learned it as Dworkin's notion of integrity) when it extends beyond the tactically useful, as encouraging deliberate hypocrisy for the sake of political advantage. But I would assume that deliberate hypocrisy would make the most use of it when it's tactically useful. What the Rawlsian project is trying to do is impose the requirement upon all citizens at all times, not just when it serves political purposes. The harm of doing that, I would think, would be pretty minimal if you're only worried about self-interested actors who would be self-interested in any event.
Finally, there's also an undeniable material benefit to the Rawlsian talk, in that it constrains the sphere of acceptable reasons for governmental actions. Requiring political arguments to be framed in universalist terms can be seen as a sort of procedural requirement---not necessary in and of itself, but historically proven to tend to yield good results.
In summary, there are arguments against Rawlsian universalism, but Jonah hasn't made any such argument with any clarity, and although Matt has made one, it isn't convincing.
June 15, 2006 10:09 AM | Reply | Permalink
The effort to impose the "accessible to all" criterion as something other than a mere tactic . . .has the perverse consequence of enticing people into offering more-or-less bad faith arguments in favor of their positions.
I would say instead that it is people's original choice to adopt narrowly-interested positions that "entices" people to offer bad-faith arguments in favor of those positions. When people actually adopt positions intended to achieve universally sound goals, they can offer utterly sincere, universal justifications.
June 15, 2006 10:29 AM | Reply | Permalink
"Repugnant, to be sure, but think of how much damage it would do to our national polity if representatives described the appropriations process as though it were merely the consequence of naked political power moves."
Wait, really? If the appropriations process is in fact the consequence of naked political power moves, and if the American people generally recognize that fact (as I believe they do), then what good is accomplished by pretending otherwise? All it does is give voters yet another reason to assume that everything they hear from politicians is bullshit, and that, it seems to me, is far more damaging to our national polity.
And after all, our government was designed on the assumption that all parties would be seeking to aggregate the power and benefits of government to themselves, and therefore depended on checks and balances rather than virtuous self-sacrifice to prevent abuse of the system. So if our politicians admitted that they were seeking to enrich their constituents at the expense of others (which is after all more or less their job description, in so far as some things really are zero-sum), then maybe they would have a little credibility for a change, and we wouldn't have to fall over ourselves praising "The Straight Talk Express."
June 15, 2006 10:30 AM | Reply | Permalink
The effort to impose the "accessible to all" criterion as something other than a mere tactic.. has the perverse consequence of enticing people into offering more-or-less bad faith arguments in favor of their positions. This winds up distorting and abusing the public debate in a much worse manner than allowing everyone to just say what they mean would do.
I'm very skeptical. This seems like a theoretical objection with no empirical basis. (Hopefully crude empiricism isn't an entirely filthy concept to you philosophers.) I just don't think it would really distort public debate all that much, and surely not much more than "allowing everyone to just say what they mean." Everyone's already allowed to do that, and look at what passes for public debate in this country. What we want are appeals, not to narrow sectarian interests or ideologically polarized bases, but to reasons that a majority can agree upon. I can't see why it matters all that much whether the people making the arguments are insincere - they're plenty insincere now as it is. What matters more are the arguments put forward, and if the Falwells and Robertsons have to wear fake grins and grit their teeth as they try to couch their arguments in religiously-neutral terms, then we can have an honest discussion about whether their theories about e.g. gay marriage destroying heterosexuality hold any merit. All the better for us when their theories are disproven, and they've got no legs left to stand on.
June 15, 2006 10:37 AM | Reply | Permalink
I have never understood the idea that religious arguments should be excluded because they are not "accessible to all." What's the difference supposed to be between a Christian argument, which is not "accessible" to me because I'm not a Christian, and a utilitarian argument, which is not "accessible" to be because I'm not a utilitarian?
Someone might answer that utilitarianism is a secular philosophy while Christianity is religious, but that's just begging the question. Plenty of people think Christianity can be demonstrated empirically or that theism can be demonstrated logically -- which is just the same thing that plenty of people think about utilitarianism. Religious arguments against abortion are wrong because the religions are wrong, not because there's some meaningful property of "accessibility" above and beyond "validity" and "truth."
June 15, 2006 10:52 AM | Reply | Permalink
I don't think there is anything wrong with using religious arguments to make your point, but that means you have to accept it when people then disagree with you because they don't share your religious belief. MLK was able to make a religious argument that worked because he was appealing to basic morality that was pretty much shared by all.
Which is why in practical terms it is a bad move, there aren't that many controversial issues that have the broad appeal that civil rights did simply on moral terms. In Ponnuru's case it seems he is trying to make his case without using a religious argument, but failing at it. Basically he is using a religious argument, just not using any of the words, if you know what I mean. Which is what I find happens a lot with believers who think they are making a secular based argument. Derbyshire started to do a good job at calling him on this, but pulled up short, and then lamely backtracked when his friends at NRO started complaining.
June 15, 2006 11:03 AM | Reply | Permalink
Didn't Rawls presume that you would not know where you would end up in society? Thus an argument that only had a sectarian basis might put you at disadvantage if you did not end up subscribing to that creed.
The appeal to Dr. King while often made in this context is misplaced. Yes Dr. King used religious language to persuade people of the rightness of his cause. However, is appeal was to the American ideal. He called on Americans to live up to their creed and become inclusive in regard to Blacks and other minorities. This was not a religious argument but an American one.
Daniel A. Greenbaum
June 15, 2006 11:08 AM | Reply | Permalink
You don't have to approach ethics as John Rawls did to think that "You're wrong because God told me so" isn't going to win you a lot of friends, converts, or philosophy-faculty appointments. And pretending that means that we can't be motivated ethically by religious convictions is just the usual wingnut confusion of freedom of religion with whatever in tarnation they mean by godless liberal secularism. They're speaking the language of jihad, as usual, and Martin Luther King did not. After all, he knew jihads all too well, and they were called lynchings.
John
http://www.haberarts.com/
June 15, 2006 11:43 AM | Reply | Permalink
It seems to me there should be a difference between an argument that arises out of religion, and an argument completely dependent upon religion. Also (or maybe alternately) there should be a difference between an argument from a religious position and an argument from religious authority.
Saying 'human life is sacred--and therefore abortion is wrong' is one kind of argument--and 'The Bible says witches should be killed' is another kind.
All philosophies have assumptions/tenets/axioms, and religions can be treated as philosophical systems--which is what makes ecumenical dialogue possible. (It also gives rise to the Coulterish 'liberalism is a religion too--and it's heresy!' fallacy.)
But religions aren't simply philosophies--and the appeal to authority is one of the big divergences.
You can say 'the divine purpose of human sex is procreation' and talk even with a Dawkinsite for whom it isn't--but who may agree with you--kind of. But arguing 'homosexuality is a sin--the Bible says so!' is not going to work.
'Jonah Goldberg is an idiot,' is, of course, self-evident.
June 15, 2006 12:12 PM | Reply | Permalink
(Accident).
June 15, 2006 12:21 PM | Reply | Permalink
So long as we are discussing utilitarian viewpoints (see other comments below), consider what John Stuart Mill would have said on the subject: no opinions should be repressed at all; all opinions should be subject to public debate. Mill would argue that repressing opinions disables people from understanding why certain opinions are wrong, as understanding why an opinion is right or wrong is useful for society and leads to progress. In other words, we should allow people to make religious arguments so we can demonstrate why these arguments are wrong, or why they cannot apply universally. Persuasion, not accessibility, is the name of the utilitarian game.
June 15, 2006 1:30 PM | Reply | Permalink
Two possibly off-topic questions:
1) So what was your honors thesis, in 25 words or less?
2) Goldberg says: even though opposition to abortion has helped make the GOP the majority party in the U.S.
Does anyone want to challenge that assertion?
June 15, 2006 1:43 PM | Reply | Permalink
On your 2): Goldberg's assertion is probably true, even though no majority of Americans can be described as "opposed to abortion" in the sense of being opposed to abortion rights. That's because anti-choice folks, even if they're a minority, turn out to vote, and that's the issue they vote on.
June 15, 2006 2:19 PM | Reply | Permalink
The problem here is the presumption that somehow arguments can be clearly divided into universalist and non-universalist portions and that one must predominate over another. On the non-universalist front: People have belief systems- whether Christianity, Buddhism, or even a belief in dark matter and big bang. These belief systems necessairly influence how you feel about ALL issues, if you reach back far enough.
But this doesn't mean that all universalist arguments are false or in bad faith, as has been seemingly suggested throughout this entry- maybe, for example, that Congressmen really DOES think the project in his district will be good for national security as well. So he also thinks it will help him get reelected. The two are not mutually exclusive, and both should be acknowledged.
June 15, 2006 2:20 PM | Reply | Permalink
Anything crude is entirely filthy to us philosophers. So there.
June 15, 2006 2:24 PM | Reply | Permalink
The natural assumption is that anyone arguing for a policy expects to benefit, at least indirectly. This is a given, so it is also natural that the arguer will look for more universal attributes.
All reason is rationalizing, but so what? That's the purpose of reason. Literally, reason is called on to make a desire rational. Even more literally, it is used to make a desire measurably comparable to another desire--a "ratio". Only when measurable can two conflicting desires be balanced.
June 15, 2006 4:15 PM | Reply | Permalink
With all due respect Rawls is NOT a utilitarian. His project draws inspiration from Kant.
June 15, 2006 4:42 PM | Reply | Permalink
Rawl's Original Position is what we call in philosophy a "thought experiment" it is not to be taken literally. If you did not know who you would be and what position in society you would occupy and if we assume you are both a) rational and 2) self-interested, then you would consent to enter into a Social Contract in which every position would be treated fairly. What the implications are for the possibility that you will turn out to be a religious fanatic are open to debate. Personally, I would favor free psychotropic medications be available for such an eventuality.
June 15, 2006 4:52 PM | Reply | Permalink
Here is a religious "argument" for you:
1) The Bible says :He that curseth his father or his mother shall surely be put to death (Exodus 21:17)
2) The Bible is the Word of God
3) The Word of God must be obeyed
____________________________________________Therefore Next time your kid tells you to fuck off, you have to kill him.
I rest my case
June 15, 2006 5:06 PM | Reply | Permalink
And my I add that anything filthy is therfore also crude.
The reason why Rawls might say that religious "arguments" are not accessible to all is because they are not based on reason which is a universal criterion as opposed to faith which is a veritable zoo of fantasies.
I had a student once tell me at the beginning of the semester that his philosophy was this:
1) Every sentence in the Bible is literally true.
2) any valid deductions from sentences in the bible are therefore also true
3) Nothing not derived by method 1) or 2) can be trusted.
June 15, 2006 5:15 PM | Reply | Permalink
Polling shows that a majority of Americans CAN, in fact, be described as "opposed to abortion", in the sense that, while they might not agree with the ultimate aims of the pro-life movement, at least agree that it's pushing in the right direction.
So long as the courts artifically maintain a policy status quo that's far from the political center, they at the same time assure that the majority of the public, if they have to chose sides, land in the pro-life camp. Lending that camp more political clout than it's true aims would otherwise justify.
June 15, 2006 5:22 PM | Reply | Permalink
Here is a pop quiz for you guys:
If while walking down the street I see a squirrel chomping on an acorn near a bush and based on that visual impression I come to the conclusion that Moscow is the capital of Russia, would my conclusion be less true just because of "the way I arrived at it"?
June 15, 2006 5:24 PM | Reply | Permalink
For Christsake Rawls is NOT a Utilitarian
June 15, 2006 5:26 PM | Reply | Permalink
The idea that we should all hide any religious motivation when arguing a point is something that makes sense if you're drafting legislation or writing a court opinion; only non-religious justifications allowed.
For the rest of us, however, the argument for leaving religion out of it is necessary only to a certain extent, specifically: you shouldn't ever just say "because the bible says so [the end]" or you will annoy people. Annoying people doesn't get you anywhere.
That said, I do like when people full-disclose about why they personally are so on fire about something, be it their religious beliefs or their personal history, because that makes the discussion more interesting.
MLK was obviously on the interesting, not annoying, side of the line.
June 15, 2006 6:48 PM | Reply | Permalink
Political Liberalism is explicitly non-Kantian. The popular view is that he wrote PL to get away from the explicitly Kantian underpinings of A Theory of Justice (his more famous work). I have a friend working on a doctoral dissertation about why A Theory of Justice need not be read as assuming uniquely Kantian claims, but once he is published he will be a minority of one here. Either way, Rawls in PL is not a Kantian liberal, just a liberal. Also, not responding to kosmotropic, but Rawls at no point claims that religious arguments should be repressed. He simply says that if you only address religious arguments to those who do not share your religious beliefs in order to justify a peice of legislation then you are not showing them the respect they deserve as a fellow citizen. If they lose and all you can say to them is that more people buy into your presuppositions then buy into theirs, then they have no reason to identify with the outcome, and thus any coercion the state applies to them with regards to that outcome is unjust. Rawls in PL explicitly states that you the government cannot restrict speech in such a way. PL is primarily about the duties of good citizenship.
June 16, 2006 12:01 AM | Reply | Permalink
Your argument against Matt is bad. Machiavelli doesn't show us anything of the sort. Machiavelli assumes (at least in the Prince) a sort of ammoralism about state action. He does nothing by way of arguing for this (the odds are he didn't believe it himself, and wrote the book that way only to appeal to the intended reader).
That there is a difference between private morality and public morality is an extremely controversial claim. Unless you are simply assuming relativism, this who two perspectives thing doesn't do much. Looked at one way it is wrong, and looked at another way it isn't. That suggests that at least one way of looking at it is confused, not that it is both good and bad.
In addition Rawls was not only talking about how states justify their actions, but how individuals when talking about matters of public concern should address each other if they are to show proper respect for their fellow citizens.
June 16, 2006 12:12 AM | Reply | Permalink
Did you mean to be asking a question about knowledge? Almost no one thinks that the truth of the proposition is impacted by what some individual takes to be evidence for it.
June 16, 2006 12:13 AM | Reply | Permalink
I don't see how my belief in dark matter effects my belief that no innocent person should suffer torture.
Rawls' way of dividing the arguments is that an argument is universal if it appeals only to premises that no reasonable person could reject. The fuzziness in his argument is that he has no precise account of reasonableness (precision is not to be expected when the problem is hard though). He seemed to think that reasonable people disagree about religion, but not about things like what our basic rights are, and about the value of democratic government. This might not satisfy, but you might think it was a start.
June 16, 2006 12:20 AM | Reply | Permalink
Rawls was in the business of constructing a practical utopia. He was trying to say what the best political situation we could hope for was, given human limitations. Given this as a goal, the fact that people are insincere now does not mean that it is not bad if his practical utopia requires insincerity. If it does, then presumably it fails to do what it intends to do, unless you think human beings cannot help being insincere, but that sounds wrong.
Basically Rawls needs a home run and you are congratulating him for a single.
June 16, 2006 12:25 AM | Reply | Permalink
I know Rawls was not a utilitarian. I was referring to other comments that were made that referenced utilitarianism.
June 16, 2006 6:23 AM | Reply | Permalink
People are generally not receptive to arguments based on unacceptable premises. For this reason, Rawls is probably correct. If the purpose is to change the mind of someone who favors the legality of abortion (and does not believe in God or read the Bible), arguments that are Biblically based will not be effective.
The reason people make "bad-faith" arguments is because people are often unwilling to even have the discussion with someone whose motives are known and run counter to their own. Certainty of rightness becomes petrified such that people cannot even engage in civilized discussion without simply resorting to ad hominem attacks that have little bearing on matters at hand. (I witnessed this at a "debate" between Sean Hannity and Jerry Springer a few months ago in Indiana. What a waste of time... both debaters were embarrasments.)
The reputation of a person making an argument should have no bearing on the argument itself. We would be shocked and terribly suspicious if an Ann Coulter made an argument similar to an EJ Dionne, and rightly so. This doesn't mean the argument itself has no validity.
With this in mind, I often find myself (as a Christian) faced with making an argument against behavior I consider immoral. If my audience is largely Christian, and they know I am as well, they're understandably more receptive, just as the readership of TPMCafe will be initially receptive to arguments made by Matt Yglesias. The problem is that of reputation: if my audience knows I'm a Christian and they are not, it becomes very difficult to be heard, even if my argument is not based on religion.
June 16, 2006 7:52 AM | Reply | Permalink
My dear fried. Let me explain it to you. It is not about liberal v conservatism etc. It is about Method. It is about from whence you derive moral value. Utilitarians are NATURALISTS and derive moral value from the universal desire for HAPPINESS. SO Utilitarian Liberals (not all Liberals are Utilitarian, e.g Rawls) construct ethics and political systems based on MAXIMIZE HAPPINESS. A strictly naturalist, empiricist project. Rawls on the other hand does not derive moral value from Happiness but from REASON. That is Kantian. It is not even a controversial issue amongst philosophers.
You are confusing Liberal with Utilitarian. Yes All Utilitarians tend to be liberal, but NO Not all liberals are Utilitarian. Rwls, is one of those.
It would take too much time and space to explain to you why Rawls is not a Utilitarian and why he is ranked as a Kantian. But one thing you did get right he is a Liberal. Was Kant a Liberal? not exactly. But you see Rawls can be a Kantian and a Liberal at the same time. I know it sounds confusing, but that's the way it is.
June 16, 2006 9:16 AM | Reply | Permalink
My Point is this If a religious fanatic says:
Beelzebub says that Murder is wrong. Therefore murder is wrong. The fact that the premise of the argument is not good grounds for believing the conclusion does not mean that therefore the conclusion is false. If The New Testament says that thou shall not covet thy neighbors wife, the fact that the New Testament says it is wrong is not an reason for maintaining it wrong. You should not covet they neighbors wife regardless of what the New Testament says about it. In short contrary to popular belief (promoted by the right wingers and fundies) what is right or wrong has nothing to do with what God purports to say in the Bible. If God said in the Bible that molesting children is permissible, that would be so much the worse for God, not so much the worse for children. Generally speaking, any ethics based on Divine Command, is bogus. That does not mean that God or the scripture can get it right about some ethical issue, which often is the case. But the fact that ‘Moscow is the Capital of Russia’ (although true) cannot be logically derived from squirrels munching in the bushes and the fact that ‘Murder is wrong’ cannot be derived from inscriptions in an old book which purports to be the word of God does not mean that therefore Moscow is NOT the capital of Russia or that Murder is NOT wrong. Even granting it is the word of God, Murder's wrongness is not dependent of what God says is right or wrong. Socrates made that point way back when.
June 16, 2006 9:39 AM | Reply | Permalink
I really don't understand what you guys mean by an argument being "universal".
Suppose I say 1) There are 3 white marbles in the box plus 2) there are two blue marbles in the box, 3) those are the only colors in the box/ therefore there are five marbles in the box. That's a valid deductive argument. What on earth do you mean by "Universal"? do you mean an argument is "universal" if it applies everywhere in the universe? well find me a valid deductive argument that doesn't. lol.
What you might be confusing yourselves with is universal and particular statements. So If I say :All men are mortal, that's a universal statement to the effect that anything that is human is mortal. But if I say Socrates is mortal, that is a particular statement about a particular man. However, even there we could translate the latter statement to read Everything that is Socrates is mortal and thus make it into a universal statement....
June 16, 2006 9:49 AM | Reply | Permalink
Since Rawls has passed... may I suggest
Politics and Vision : Continuity and Innovation in Western Political Thought
by Sheldon S. Wolin
http://www.amazon.com/gp/product/0691126275/qid=1150475068/ sr=12-6/103-4763409-8459846?s=books&v=glance&n=283155
"This is a significantly expanded edition of one of the greatest works of modern political theory. Sheldon Wolin's Politics and Vision inspired and instructed two generations of political theorists after its appearance in 1960. This new edition retains intact the original ten chapters about political thinkers from Plato to Mill, and adds seven chapters about theorists from Marx and Nietzsche to Rawls and the postmodernists. The new chapters, which show how thinkers have grappled with the immense possibilities and dangers of modern power, are themselves a major theoretical statement. They culminate in Wolin's remarkable argument that the United States has invented a new political form, "inverted totalitarianism," in which economic rather than political power is dangerously dominant. In this new edition, the book that helped to define political theory in the late twentieth century should energize, enlighten, and provoke generations of scholars to come. Wolin originally wrote Politics and Vision to challenge the idea that political analysis should consist simply of the neutral observation of objective reality. He argues that political thinkers must also rely on creative vision. Wolin shows that great theorists have been driven to shape politics to some vision of the Good that lies outside the existing political order. As he tells it, the history of theory is thus, in part, the story of changing assumptions about the Good. In the new chapters, Wolin displays all the energy and flair, the command of detail and of grand historical developments, that he brought to this story forty years ago. This is a work of immense talent and intense thought, an intellectual achievement that will endure."
June 16, 2006 12:26 PM | Reply | Permalink
Um, no that is not the confusion. For one thing 'Socrates is mortal' can be read just as universally as 'All men are mortal'. It depends on whether you think 'Socrates' is the name of a property, a property which only one individual has. (this is Quine's take on names and identity). So you can say 'Socrates is mortal' just means 'Anything which is Socrates is mortal'. This isn't that big a deal, but it shows why the universal/particular distinction is not that useful. Almost any sentence can be interpreted as a universal, except maybe for one's that have indexicals (here, there, now, etc.) in them.
It is also not the distinction that is gotten after by Rawls. The distinction is rather simple minded. A universal argument is one that any reasonable person could accept without compromising their respect for themselves. So you only appeal to reasons that everyone who is minimally reasonable can see as reasons. You only appeal to values that everyone who is minimally reasonable thinks is valuable. This means that, on the assumption that reasonable people disagree about religious truth, you cannot appeal to some particular religious doctrine. The reason is that there is bound to be some reasonable person out there who cannot accept the argument because they perfectly reasonably hold to a different set of religious doctrines. The idea is that appeal to a value like 'it is bad when innocents die when this is preventable' is universal because no reasonable person could disagree with this.
The distinction is just between things that there can clearly be justified disagreement about, and things for which there cannot be justified disagreement about. If some question is one for which there cannot be justified disagreement, then every person who is reasonable will have the same answer to it, and in that sense it is universal.
It has nothing to do with the nature of the inference, but how contentious the premises are.
That said I think that Rawlsian political philosophy is all wrong, so I do not endorse this way of looking at politics or political debate.
June 16, 2006 2:13 PM | Reply | Permalink
I understand the point, it is just a statement that the 'denying the antecedent' fallacy is in fact a fallacy. To that extent the point is common sense. I thought you were going after the only slightly deeper philosophical question about whether, when we believe in something true, we should count as knowing it when our belief is based on bad evidence. So should we say that the person who believes adultery is wrong because the Bible tells them so doesn't know that adultery is wrong, because the Bible is, we are assuming, not good evidence for such things?
As for Divine Command Theories, I agree that they are wrong, but this is not shown by anything you have said here. You are begging the question against the Divine Command Theorist, becuase you are assuming from the outset that appeals to authority are bad evidence, and so it just follows that Divine Command Theory is false. Socrates similarly does not disprove Divine Command Theory (for a single God anyway), but seems to assume that it is false. People try to read in the good argument that Divine Command Theories suggest that the Divine Being is to some extent ammoral, since they picked what the moral law was, presumably from a non-moral standpoint (otherwise you get a regress), but it is not clear that he is making this argument. I do not have my collected works of Plato with me on vacation so I will not be able to debate the interpretational particulars with you.
June 16, 2006 2:23 PM | Reply | Permalink
this was a double-post.
June 16, 2006 2:34 PM | Reply | Permalink
I don't know whether you do philosophy professionally. I know that I do. So let me tell you that you are the one who does not know what he is talking about. You are dealing with an introduction to Ethics view of the logical space. There are two key points to make. One, not all non-utilitarians derive moral value from Reason. For examples see most virtue ethicists. Michael Slote, Richard Taylor, Elizabeth Anscombe, and especially Bernard Williams are especially good examples. These peopel do not think, as Kant does, that the moral law is derivable from reason alone. They also do not think the Principle of Utility is valid. So there is that. The fact that Rawls is not a utilitarian (I am assuming that you think there are only two camps in ethics-kantian and Utilitarian- because I never claimed that Rawls was a utilitarian, only that in Political Liberalism he is not a Kantian. The only way to infer from that claim that I also thought he was a utilitarian is to think that there are only two things a person can be. This is just obviously false. Ask any professor of philosophy and they will tell you so.) does not show that he is a Kantian. It just doesn't. This is actually something that is usually tought in an intro Ethics or intro Political theory course, so you really ought to know this, unless you are completely pretending to know anything about philosophy.
Point two, Rawls is pretty explicitly not doing moral philosophy in Political Liberalism. He also claims to not be doing it in A Theory of Justice, though he realizes that his argument relies on some moral claims, and has consequences for moral argument. Part of the point of Political Liberalism is to provide an account of liberalism that does not rely on any comprehensive doctrines (that includes moral ones).
To cure your ignorance go check out the Stanford Encyclopedia of Philosophy
Also, befoe you pretend to know more than a person on a subject, you should probably make sure they don't get paid to teach it and write about it. In case you think I am lying my name is patrick mayer and I am a grad student at cornell. you can look me up.
June 16, 2006 2:36 PM | Reply | Permalink
I don't disagree with you on any of your substantive points. I was countering the view that Rawls is a Liberal who is also a Utilitarian. If you scroll up, that was my point all along. I never said nor implied that there is only two schools of ethics Utilitarian and Rationalist. Don't know where you get that idea. All I maintain is that Rawls' reliance of "what a rational person would do in the Original Position” has more kinship to Kant than it does to Bentham or Mill. That's my only point.
If you do teach philosophy I hope you don't treat your students in such a dismissive way. Philospohy is a deeply discursive discipline, and I've seldom found philosophers be as inattentive and shrill as you. It does not help the discourse.
June 16, 2006 3:36 PM | Reply | Permalink
1 "One, not all non-utilitarians derive moral value from Reason."
What on earth makes you think that that's my position. show me where I even remotely imply such a thing
2 "The fact that Rawls is not a utilitarian (I am assuming that you think there are only two camps in ethics-kantian and Utilitarian- because I never claimed that Rawls was a utilitarian, only that in Political Liberalism he is not a Kantian"
Again, totally false assumption, I merely said that Rawls' method is closer to Kant than it is to say Bentham or Mill. You seem to be having a debate with yourself or a straw man because it certainly is not me.
3. "The only way to infer from that claim that I also thought he was a utilitarian is to think that there are only two things a person can be."
That's just a logically unsound argument. Those are not the only two logical choices. Look things over again on that. I was trying to get the record straight that Rawls is NOT a utilitarian, because a number of people are making that claim in this threat. That was the gist of my whole point. In fact if you really want to get down to it Rawls is a psychological egoist
4) "[sic].) does not show that he is a Kantian."
Inasmuch as Rawls holds reason (albeit instrumental) to be central to his method, he shares that with Kant. I never meant to imply that Rawls subscribed to, say, the doctrine of "The Foundations of the Metaphysics of Morals" or any such thing
5. "Point two, Rawls is pretty explicitly not doing moral philosophy in Political Liberalism"
No kidding. A Theory of Justice is a work of Social/Political philosophy and inasmuch as it is that, it presupposes ethical theory. I already mentioned that the Original Position assumes "self-interested" and rational" individuals. So implicit in his construction is ethical egoism. And Ethical Egoism is an ethical theory but certainly NOT Kantian.
June 16, 2006 4:41 PM | Reply | Permalink
Well I was making the general Epistemological point that even though a certain belief was NOT derived at in a reliable way, it can be true for all that. And that divining what is right or wrong by divining the will of a purported God is not a reliable method. How do I know that? It is empirically established. Just check out all the people who think we are in the end of times because of some such divination.
Ethics has to start with our moral intuitions and a system of ethics is merely a method of systematizing those intuitions. Now it might be that once we have constructed such a system, we will find cases where the system would allow something immoral as permissible or disallow something moral as forbidden. In such cases, we have to find what is euphemistically called "reflective equilibrium". So for example under act utilitarian principles it might become morally permissible to kill and innocent man if that option was the one that maximized utility overall. (Now don't interpret this as meaning that I think that the only systems of ethics are act utilitarianism and Kant. ). On the other hand under certain circumstances Kantian Deontology would forbid you to do something which intuitively might even seem to be your duty. The case usually presented is lying about whether you are hiding a Jewish family in your attic during Nazi time when you are. So generally speaking--and sad to say--there are no systems of ethics that don't have counterintuitive examples in them. Take Ross' Prima Facie Duty ranking (which he bases on intuition). We can find situations in which duties conflict and in either option one of the duties must be violated without having any "intuition" as to which is to take precedence.
The Argument against Divine Command Theory is NOT circular given what I said above. It is intuitively false to maintain an action is right or wrong simply because God says so. Here is why. If we take the Divine Command Theory seriously, God being omnipotent can make ANYTHING right or wrong simply by willing it. Therefore in some possible world God Commands robbery to be praiseworthy. Well that flies in the face of our moral intuitions. Robbery is WRONG IN ALL POSSIBLE WORLDS just like 2+2=5 is. It is a necessary moral truth. So not even God is free to chose what is right and wrong any more than he can choose what 2+2 adds up to.
Remember: A person who truly cannot distinguish right from wrong intuitively is by legal definition legally insane.
I should hasten to point out that in a great many cases (abortion, gay rights, etc) intuitions differ. There is not even agreement as to what does and what does not fall under the purview of moral consideration. Alas Ethics is not neat and clean. Thus Social/Political philosophy is even messier.
June 16, 2006 7:21 PM | Reply | Permalink
"What the Rawlsian project is trying to do is impose the requirement upon all citizens at all times, not just when it serves political purposes. "
All Social/Political docrines are universal. If you mean that we are going to FORCE every single individual to abide by Rawlsian prescriptions, all I can say is good luck. Trying to stop "free riding" is a matter of law enforcement I think.
June 16, 2006 7:45 PM | Reply | Permalink
How about:
undetached Socratic parts
the sum of all temporal Socratic slices
(I think Quine used ‘the thing that socratises’)
you say
"So you can say 'Socrates is mortal' just means 'Anything which is Socrates is mortal"
I said exactly the same thing in my last sentence to which you replied.
Quine was regimenting ordinary language with proper names into quantificational form which in his system has no proper names in the domain; only variables bound and unbound.
However the undetached socratic parts purports to refer to (singular) Socrates, yet is not singular at all. It is plural. Same with temporal slices...etc...So Quine adjudicates reference to be inscrutable....but this is way off topic here.
June 16, 2006 8:20 PM | Reply | Permalink
I am also here in replying to your last post.
Numbers 1-3 are easy enough to deal with. You presented only two possibilities as to what Rawls might be, one being a utilitarian naturalist, the other a Kantian. Given that I was saying he was neither, if you meant to be addressing an argument to me (since your comment was a reply to mine) and knew that there were alternate positions, it would have made sense to actually present the third possibility and say why Rawls was not that. You didn't. Further evidence for your thinking this is your critisizing me (and condescendingly trying to inform me of the issues) for thinking that Rawls was a utilitarian. I will repeat that the only way that you could have drawn the conlcusion that I thought he was a utilitarian, given that all I said was that he was not a Kantian (In PL), was to think that one is either a utilitarian or a Kantian. You obviously had trouble following the dialectic, since the argument you call invalid in your #3 was an argument I was attributing to you. So there is my evidence that you think there are only two positions open. If you knew there weren't, then it was something you manifestly failed to get across in your post.
As for your #4, it does not separate Rawls from utilitarians in thinking that Reason is central to ethics. Everyone except for mystics and romantics thinks this. Philosophical ethics pretty much by definition accepts this claim, that it is at least in part through reason that we come to know ethical truth. If you meant something else by 'central' then you need to be clearer.
I find your response to #5 odd, since I was all along talking about PL and not A theory of Justice, but I think it is clear that you misunderstand the role of the Original Position in a Theory of Justice as well. The reason we are all rationally self-interested behing the veil of ignorance is because it is a constraint on the Original Position that it build in no controversial assumptions about human nature. If it did it would not be a thought experiment both available to all citizens within a well-ordered society and a thought experiment which delivered uniform results. It is also explicit in part III of A theory of Justice, when Rawls presents his theory of the good, that he is not an ethical egoist.
And you were doing more than saying that Rawls was not a utilitarian, you were saying he was a Kantian. I said that was false for PL, and you responded with a comment that presumed to explain to me (incorrectly by the way since not all utilitarians are naturalists, and since some Kantians are) what the difference between the two were, while imputing to me the view that Rawls was a utilitarian. Redescribing your venture midcurrent is intellectually dishonest, and you shouldn't do it.
As for your complaint about my being shrill, I love this trick. You write an asswhole comment talking down to me, and it is my fault for getting pissed and pointing out the mistakes you made. So you should get to talk down to people, but no one else can talk down to you in response. That is great. And yes there are plenty of people in philosophy who would have dealt with you in a more even tone. Plenty of people in the world with more patience and less vanity than me. But don't fool yourself into thinking that the problem is with me alone. I have never responded to a student in the way I responded to you, because I have never had a student act like such a know it all when it was clear that they didn't know what they were talking about. You use the internet as a sheild so you can play this wise guy, but you haven't shown that you know anything substantial about the subject. Some people are good enough to give respect to everyone. I am not so good. I only give respect when a person acts as though they deserve it.
June 16, 2006 9:12 PM | Reply | Permalink
"Numbers 1-3 are easy enough to deal with. You presented only two possibilities as to what Rawls might be"
I never said there is only two possibilities Utilitarian or Kantian. You are not understanding what I'm saying. My text is clear. You need to quote from me where I say these things in order to regain any credibility. Merely repeating falsehoods is simply not going to do it.
"I will repeat that the only way that you could have drawn the conlcusion that I thought he was a Utilitarian, given that all I said was that he was not a Kantian (In PL), was to think that one is either a utilitarian or a Kantian."
That's an elementary logical mistake you are making and I don't think any philosophy professor would do that and repeat doing it even after I told you to look at it again. The gist of the discussion prior to your interjection was that Rawls was a Utilitarian. That was the discussion going on. From the premises that a) Rawls draws inspiration from Kant and 2) Rawls is NOT a utilitarian you cannot VALIDLY conclude that Either Rawls is a Kantian or that Rawls is a Utilitarian. That is an invalid deduction. As a philosophy professor you should know that much.
You obviously had trouble following the dialectic, since the argument you call invalid in your #3 was an argument I was attributing to you.
Let me psychoanalyze this: That's your problem you ATTRIBUTE arguments to me I never made. You simply don't understand logic.
As for your #4, it does not separate Rawls from utilitarians in thinking that Reason is central to ethics. Everyone except for mystics and romantics thinks this.
Empiricisits derive ethics from Experience Kant Derives ethics from Reason itself. Period. That is very basic. Agaain, this does not mean that empiricist do not utilize reasonable arguments for their position. This is really basic stuff
I find your response to #5 odd, since I was all along talking about PL and not A theory of Justice, but I think it is clear that you misunderstand the role of the Original Position in a Theory of Justice as well.
The reason we are all rationally self-interested behing the veil of ignorance is because it is a constraint on the Original Position that it build in no controversial assumptions about human nature
Psychological Egoism is a controversial position. Rawls NEVER maintains that we are "self-interested" behind the Veil of Ignorance alone. Behind the Veil of Ignorance is a gedanken experiment. What would be the point of assuming 1) Rationality and 2) self-interest in the Original Position if it does not apply to real human beings as well?
But in any case, given that you think that from x is not a U and x is a K you think that you can validly deduce that either x is a U or x is a K, I have to conclude that you don't understand logic and thus I doubt seriously that you are a philosopher.
June 17, 2006 9:18 AM | Reply | Permalink
Note
Asssuming the "either, or" conclusion to be an exclusive disjunction, which you do.
June 17, 2006 9:24 AM | Reply | Permalink